This equality holds for *all* real numbers N,M
Can you see why?pic.twitter.com/LvR2r0y6iT
PhD student of Theoretical Particle Physics @UCIrvine l @NSF Fellow l Physics & Math Animations l Patreon: https://www.patreon.com/inertialobserver …
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This equality holds for *all* real numbers N,M
Can you see why?pic.twitter.com/LvR2r0y6iT
One-trick pony strikes againpic.twitter.com/eDIXe5w6Pz
Can you please show how you go from 4th to 5th line? (Specifically how you get I)
split up the integral over the numerator, and then look at the very first tweet. The original integral is equal to I
Makes sense. In the 2nd line the bounds (inf --> 0 rather than 0 --> inf) threw me off. Any significance to that?
You get a minus sign from the u sub you can use to flip the blinds
bounds*
I’m not entirely sure what you’re asking, but I’m near certain there’s no typo
Why would inf be the lower bound when 0 is the top bound? (3rd line)
Take u=1/x, then the bounds go form u(0) ->u(inf) = inf -> 0.. since there is a minus sign from du we can absorb the negative and flip the bounds as to return the original 0->inf
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thanks!