I'm confused. If f(x) = sin(x), f'(x) exists everywhere, but has no well defined limit at infinity
-
-
-
Right but sin(x) doesn’t have a derivative at infinity, so it doesn’t meet the hypothesis
- 1 more reply
New conversation -
-
-
L'Hôpital's rule
Thanks. Twitter will use this to make your timeline better. UndoUndo
-
-
-
a "weaker" version of L'Hopital's rule (at once wider and more constrained - you don't need infinity/infinity but you can only have x on the bottom rather than any function that goes to infinity)
Thanks. Twitter will use this to make your timeline better. UndoUndo
-
-
-
This is similar to L'Hospital with one exception: f(x)'s limit at infinity is not given as infinity..
Thanks. Twitter will use this to make your timeline better. UndoUndo
-
Loading seems to be taking a while.
Twitter may be over capacity or experiencing a momentary hiccup. Try again or visit Twitter Status for more information.