Interesting, I (mistakenly) thought the CR equations meant the function is analytic, which is not quite true, only holomorphic. I’ve had that wrong in my head for years!
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I think the confusion honestly just comes from the fact that a lotttt of professors use them interchangeably.. though I’m certain my UG complex professor
@rsachsgmu is certainly not to blame for my confusion - 2 more replies
New conversation -
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The proof of this is nice using the definition of first partials and limits along the real and imaginary axes.
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f(z) is said to be holomorphic if u,v satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann equations