Well, given that I’ve been having lots of discussions about laws of logic, I figured I could make a poll on it. Are the laws of logic a priori , a posteriori or neither ?
what do you mean? The laws of logic are just what we define them to be. There are many different logical frameworks
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I’m referring to the law of identity, law of non-contradiction and law of excluded middle.
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I think there's a false dichotomy in the poll question, because in a way we use the logical laws we do because that's how the universe seemed to work. However, they're existence begins and ends with our definitions of them.
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