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Ok, I’ll freely admit I’m out of my depth, but is quantum wavefunction-collapse not a time irreversible process? Doesn’t this give rise to the (an?) arrow of time at some fundamental level, not just as an emergent statistical property?
The Schrödinger equation does obey T-symmetry, so the time evolution of a state would obey it.. the fact that the measurement collapses a wave function at some later time doesn’t imply that time has a preferred direction
For instance if you start in a position eigenstate, let it evolve in time, and then measure the momentum.. there’s no reason why you can’t run time backwards and go from a p to an x eigenstate instead.. they are both valid physical processes
Do there are valid physical process which instantaneously change a particle from an eigenstate into a superposition state?
I agree with the first part but don’t understand the second. Are you saying that a measurement leading to wave function collapse should not be considered part of the evolution of the system in time? (I am not a physicist so have little more than a pop-sci understanding of this.)
That’s right.. If you continually measure a particle’s observable (position, momentum, spin etc) it will not evolve in time.. it’s known as the quantum Zeno paradox
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