Update: Some great discussion came about from my http://physics.SE post regarding "classical spinors" (of course @johncarlosbaez 's replies were extremely insightful as well, but to be fair he only had 140 characters to work with)https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/450899/what-precisely-is-a-classical-spin-1-2-particle …
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When I last checked, none of those perfectly nice comments had anything to do with what *I* meant by the classical spin-1/2 particle. So, I decided to explain it here:https://johncarlosbaez.wordpress.com/2018/12/30/geometric-quantization-part-5/ …
@johncarlosbaez did you see the accepted answer by @knzhou ? It at least *seemed* to me that he was pretty close to what you were saying, but the only way I can know for sure is to give your post a read :)
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@knzhou correctly says that a classical system has a symplectic manifold of states, but he doesn't say what this manifold is for the spin-1/2 particle. That's part of what my post does. -
Great, thanks! Looking forward to reading it!
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