How unequal was the Roman Empire, 1-700 AD? (also a relatively new paper) https://mpra.ub.uni-muenchen.de/46640/1/MPRA_paper_46640.pdf …pic.twitter.com/rDJ2ZpRCPn
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That probably gets complicated in this context: there were probably a number of legal slaves in that upper income bracket at least in the Byzantine case
It's a good Q. Got debated in my class last month. The same problem appears in Lindert-Williamson book when you compare ineq in ante-bellum US and UK.
I think it makes sense, but I need to explain it.
Note also that both R and B slaveries were much less harsh than American. The % f manumissions in Rome was 10 times as high as in the US; and slaves were found along the entire income distribution.
All true but Roman patriarch had absolute power (at least in early Republic). Could kill a slave at will. That's a degree of inequality charts don't measure.
That's why in Roman social tables there is no category of "slaves".
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