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I'm invoking Poe's Law on this one.
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'Income dynamism' must be at all time lows for people not born into the upper middle class, so fantasy joins hands with desperation to find work-arounds.
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You might just count them over time, say by bubbles/ 25 years. But then you have to define bubbles. A positive deviation from the rate of increase of the 10 year moving average or more than 50% followed by a crash that returns the rate of change to what was?
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Probably not a ton of difference over time, and likely not a 'capitalism' vs. 'dirigisme' or 'socialism' thing per se. Galbraith: https://www.amazon.com/History-Financial-Euphoria-Penguin-Business/dp/0140238565 … Mackay:https://www.amazon.com/Extraordinary-Popular-Delusions-Madness-Crowds/dp/1463740514 …
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1. The father of modern macroeconomics (Keynes) wrote about how we rely on bubbles in 1936. Also: Robinson, Staffa, even Minsky. 2. Yes - it’s been measured. FRED (St Louis Fed) has every piece of economic data from every source in the U.S. https://fred.stlouisfed.org
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perhaps they're a symptom of the ever-increasing barriers to entry for real businesses, caused by consolidation .. sorta like those studies that found that poor folks somewhat rationally play the lottery because of an ever-increasing lack of economic mobility
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The gyre is widening, certainly.
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Put in Law & Economics speak, markets depend on opportunities for exchange. Exchange brings the possibility of gains of trade as well as parasitic rent-seeking. The assumption has been that the former always outstrips the latter as opportunities expand. What if that's wrong here?
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