What's the best explanation for why Catholic Spanish-America became so much more racially mixed and polyglot than the Anglo-Protestant north?
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The material basis was English Protestant colonialist came as settlers & farmers (which required dispossession of Natives) while French/Spanish Catholics engaged more in trade & resource extraction (which often entailed working with Natives).
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Hacienda system vs expropriation and expulsion of native tribes westward
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Both the French and the Spanish were trying to get established around Jacksonville, FL in the 16th century. But the Spanish massacred the French in a battle at Matanzas Inlet.
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In most of Mexico, you'd be quickly corrected if you described the Catholic mission as anything less than forced conversion and displacement of existing religions (w/ locals fighting to preserve spiritual traditions.)
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