Has anyone given a plausible explanation of why 19th century American literature was so queer (Melville, Whitman, Dickinson, James, etc. etc.). It's very striking.
-
-
This Tweet is unavailable.
Replying to @xlorentzen
Yeah, Fiedler was the first one to notice this but his Freudian explanation doesn't seem convincing to me.
11:48 AM - 4 Sep 2019
0 replies
0 retweets
3 likes
Loading seems to be taking a while.
Twitter may be over capacity or experiencing a momentary hiccup. Try again or visit Twitter Status for more information.