In 1952, the Republican candidate (Eisenhower) got only 21% of the nonwhite vote.
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The best the Republican has ever done with nonwhites since 1592, when exit polling data begins, was 39% in 1956.
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In a typical election since 1952, about 17% of the non-white vote goes Republican. Which group votes more in accordance with race, again?
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If your country is all one racial group, will voting divide along racial lines? Or will ideology dominate voting patterns?
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(note that ideology and voting may in fact also divide along smaller ethnic divisions anyway, eg American Nations)
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In first past the post winner take all election systems like the US presidency, two parties naturally form and tend toward 50%.
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The important political question is where the political fault line will lie. In a 90% white America, the fault line naturally lay between
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different sets of whites, divided by ideology, class, and micro-ethnicity. In a 50% white America, where will the political fault line lie?
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We've been seeing it happen rapidly since 2006 or so: the Democrats are becoming the de-facto nonwhite (anti-white) party
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And the Republicans are, somewhat more slowly, becoming the de-facto white party.
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Keep in mind that "Democrat" and "Republican" don't really mean anything consistent over time. The parties change constantly to approach 50%
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To put this in a more illuminating way than
@keithboykin, whites and nonwhites have voted in opposition to each other every time since 1964 -
Whites and nonwhites have not both voted for the same candidate since 1964. Racial conflict exists whether whites want it or not, per voting
End of conversation
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Because dems have been tricking minorities to vote for them for decades. Free phone! Free housing! But give us your vote and stay in ghetto
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Not just that. See thread
End of conversation
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Not exactly
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And if u ask blacks, they voted for obama because he was black. They turned on Hillary like she had the plague
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Before FDR, most blacks voted for the GOP, but these were a minority since southern blacks could not vote
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