I'm surprised by this recent Norway IQ study. Before 1975, later born children within a family scored higher. After, later born children scored lower. Unless I'm missing something, dysgenics shouldn't play a role here. What happened?
I'm thinking of these kids as independent random draws essentially. I suppose if the second depends on the first in some way (as in my other tweet), there could be some effect here. If they are independent, I'm not sure how we get what you're thinking of
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but they aren’t independent random draws bc not all families make a second draw - i think we both get the difficulty, hopefully someone will audit their econometrics and set me straight
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But I think what you're saying is something like this: You have three sets of parents: 80 IQ, 100, and 120. Each 80 set has 3 kids. Each 100 set has 2. Each 120 set has 1. Kid 1 minus kid 2 in the 100 set should still average to zero. Same for kids in the 80 set
End of conversation
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