Not quite on the mark: see Lewis and Short's explanationpic.twitter.com/NMG4WA9gpG
Editor @AreoMagazine
Secular, liberal humanist. Mother. Doglover. Writing book about epistemology & ethics on the academic left
Helen.pluckrose@areomagazine.com
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Not quite on the mark: see Lewis and Short's explanationpic.twitter.com/NMG4WA9gpG
That's the Latin.
Yep!
So, do we disagree?
I think we do—the application to the Israelite tribes is derived from be generic sense of the word, which is common in both ancient Latin and medieval vernacular languages
I'm still not sure how that counters my statement that the English word has its origins in Latin but was used in sense of tribes mostly for Hebrew tribes in a Christian context and then applied to ancient Britons. Do you not think it was?
I don't disagree strongly, I just don't think it's safe to overemphasize the word's semantic connection to the tribes of Israel; nor to sever the Latin word too cleanly from the English
I don't think that's the point here tho. Americans have the word 'tribe' from the English who have used it historically primarily to describe the tribes of Israel & then ancient Britons. Therefore it is not the property of Native Americans. The end. Your point can also be true.
I buy your conclusion (obviously no word is any set of people's property) regardless of my quibbles with your premisses
But what is the premise you are quibbling with? I want to know if you think I am wrong about historical use of the word in English because I might be. I study English Christian history 1300-1700 and there could be contexts I don't know.
That is the only claim I have made and if you disagree with it, you are quibbling with the point I made. If you are pointing out it was used differently in Rome where it is derived from that is not a quibble but an additional tangential fact which I also know to be true.
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