I'm sure that happens but also that it's assumed for ideological reasons much more than it does happen.
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eg, my friend was a sports journalist & finds that men explain rules of football to her & this is almost certainly coz she is female.
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An assumption is made that she won't know them based on the fact that women are less familiar with them than men on average.
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Similarly, my husband was irritated by women explaining to him that babies need feeding & changing when out with our baby daughter.
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Gender-based assumptions of knowledge & experience can be made because of genuine differences on average & these can be irritating.
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They can also be made due to genuine sexism and the idea that one sex is generally ignorant but I suspect this to be rare in current year.
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A Saudi cleric might claim women have only a quarter of a brain but western men tend to have been at school with girls & know we know things
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Mmm, not really. It's similar to slander. In a court, almost impossible to prove 100%. But that don't mean you can't *safely* assume at time
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See the rest of the thread. I gave examples of times you can assume this.
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CAN
WE
ALL
AGREE
THAT
USING
CLAP
EMOJIS
MEANS
YOU'VE
LOST
THE
ARGUMENT
AND
ARE
NOW
JUST
SHOUTING?
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That definition means that to call something mansplaining you have to be a mind-reader (know for a fact the intentions of a person).
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I agree that most of the time, accusations of "mansplaining" are unfounded. However, that shouldn't turn the word into a non-usable one.
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Problem is that its usage has moved from light ribbing to highlight a very minor issue to furious ideological rage and contempt.
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It's just an imputation of sexism to avoid the actual point being made by the mansplainer. It is a means to bully& shame men into silence.
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Usually stopped by "Yeah, I know..." 2/2
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Howzabout you just stop at "...you think I don't know/understand what you're talking about." We do it to each other, too. 1/
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