What you are doing is called "controlling for a collider". Doing it means your regression has no causal implications. You are *assuming* no discrimination, not proving it.
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Replying to @besttrousers @gztstatistics and
I'm not assuming anything. Just saying that the fact that men and women earn different amounts of money doesn't tell us anything about the cause if the only variable considered is gender and we don't account for different jobs chosen and different hours worked.
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Replying to @HPluckrose @gztstatistics and
You are assuming it by the nature of the regression you are suggesting. That you are unaware of it doesn't make it untrue.
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Replying to @besttrousers @HPluckrose and
No. The people you are arguing against already know the simple notion that the choices women make could be affected by discriminatory behaviour/systems. Which is why they spend a large amount of time showing evidence that this effect is weak, and other causes are more likely.
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Replying to @amiguello1 @HPluckrose and
I'm sure they understand that. What they don't understand is that the form of the regression they are advocating for doesn't allow for such choices.
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Replying to @besttrousers @HPluckrose and
lol no they obviously do, it's a very simple point. They are already in the next step of the discussion. This regression is just to show that the typical point of "being paid less for the same job" is incorrect.
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Replying to @amiguello1 @HPluckrose and
Nope. Such a regression is invalid. Read mostly Harmless Econometrics:pic.twitter.com/RnalEouATe
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Replying to @besttrousers @HPluckrose and
You absolutely need to control for occupation if what you are trying to prove is the idea that women are being paid less for doing the same thing in the same job. It's a way to eliminate a possible cause of the gap. Then you can move to the next step of the conversation.
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Replying to @amiguello1 @besttrousers and
He doesn't want a conversation. He's best just muted so the rest of us can talk about the reality of the imbalance.
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Replying to @HPluckrose @besttrousers and
I like pointless twitter arguments so I'll drop you from that convo :) So maybe you can answer this: I've seen a lot of people like Berlatski say that harassment/misogynistic attitudes drive occupational choice, but I'm skeptical. Do you know of any research on that?
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No, they get some women saying so and then this is countered by other women saying not. Most women don't say anything and just carry on.
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