But I fully agree with you. The existence of a gender wage gap is insufficient evidence of discrimination just like the non-existence of a gender wage gap is insufficient evidence of no discrimination.
Of course, women can use their agency to enter professions where discrimination is said to be rife or not to enter them. Given that nearly all prestigious occupations were male dominated at one time, it seems likely that they did the former but for people-orientated jobs.
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While discrimination could certainly still be a factor in the areas in which they are not well represented, the fact that it has divided this way does tend to suggest that women are using their own agency to pursue their own interests which have been measured & replicated well.
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