Puzzle of the day (poll with possible solutions in thread below). Slight variation on a Facebook poker group debate which had surprisingly strong debate.pic.twitter.com/zZVpMM5che
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I’m just exploring why you think the store owner’s investment is relevant to calculating loss. If we factor in a $50 investment on a $70 sale (theft), why don’t we factor in a $200 investment on an identical $70 sale (theft)?
I feel like I am missing something. In the original example the store owner is never in for $200.
Just trying to see why you think it’s relevant how much the owner has invested in the merchandise. If you want to factor in profits, wouldn’t you also have to factor in losses?
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