Puzzle of the day (poll with possible solutions in thread below). Slight variation on a Facebook poker group debate which had surprisingly strong debate.pic.twitter.com/zZVpMM5che
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Let’s say the merchandise was a baseball card he bought for $200 but was offering for sale for $70 because he hadn’t properly evaluated its condition. Are you contending the owner didn’t suffer loss? If he did suffer a loss, how much?
It’s not like the baseball card example where the merchant is in for $200. He loses $100, but then gets it back in exchange for the sale and $30.
I’m just exploring why you think the store owner’s investment is relevant to calculating loss. If we factor in a $50 investment on a $70 sale (theft), why don’t we factor in a $200 investment on an identical $70 sale (theft)?
I should probably sleep before answering but I don’t see the parallel. Here it is clear to me that (assuming it sells) he has 130 loss. In our case owner starts out losing $100 bill, which is then converted to $70 in merchandise, $30 in cash. But he can replace the merch for $50.
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