Did the owner lose either the $70 in goods or the $30 in change?
Money is fungible. Once the thief took it, it was the same as any other money he had or payment option available. It’s not the bill had “Property of Joe Store Owner” stamped on it.
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But was it fungible? If the individual had been able to replace that $100 with something else to make the transaction, it would have been fungible. Nothing in the question suggests that.
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From the perspective of the store owner, money is money; he doesn’t know this bill was in his possession at some point. But—and here’s where I’ve been trying to lead you—what relevance does it being the same bill have to the question of determining loss?
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