Question for all the smart people who follow me: can you explain simply why the J&J vaccine only needs one dose but Pfizer/AZ/Moderna etc need 2?
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With vectored vaccines in general you reach a point of diminishing returns with boosting though because you generate anti-vector immunity that can suppress production of your desired immunogen so it's actually a bit weird for AZ to do homologous prime-boost
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happy to hear you raise this. I thought J&J was dismissive of the question about immune reaction to vector when asked at ACIP. So would we anticipate needing different vectors when addressing variants or boosters?
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The same argument was literally used when the Q “why did Pfizer/Moderna use 21/28 days?” came up in the course of the “Canada discussion”. .... because Phase1/2.. ..
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3 weeks is the minimal interval to prevent interference between prime and boost
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