Question for all the smart people who follow me: can you explain simply why the J&J vaccine only needs one dose but Pfizer/AZ/Moderna etc need 2?
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There's a J(ab) & J(ab) in every dose is not the answer you're after.
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Isn’t it because they got a decent antibody response with one dose and decided to roll the dice with a one dose trial. Others were more cautious.
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Plausible, but I'm sure there's some immunological addition to that explanation
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I'm wondering if the modified adenovirus infected cells create the spike protein for a longer period of time.
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https://youtu.be/W6wZia43pzY It is apparently "continuing to study the two-dose option" according to this YouTube video directly addressing that question. It appears it is just high-ish efficacy from one dose so they left it at one.
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“Johnson & Johnson JNJ.N to pay $572.1 million to the state for its part in fueling an opioid epidemic by deceptively marketing addictive painkillers”https://www.reuters.com/article/us-usa-opioids-litigation-oklahoma-idUSKCN1VG0V2 …
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It is all about how companies negotiate the trade offs between marketing and regulatory risks stemming from efficacy and practicality. Six month booster is also a good idea but such issues would be tackled later.
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I have a suspicion. The adenovirus vaccine delivers DNA into the nucleus, from which mRNA is produced. It stands to reason that the expression of its S protein would last longer. However, stability of mRNA and DNA is not that simple, but should show up in the reactions. 1/
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And the reactions are LONGER in duration in the J&J data, almost twice as long, as Moderna and Pfizer/BioNTech data, suggesting S protein expression also lasted longer. 2/2
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