He forgot “Lack of absence of virus”
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In absolute terms, would it be problematic enough to cause a pandemic? No. I understand that inherently COVID-19 has a higher mortality than common cold, but the risk factors and age play an important role in this regard.
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Without them, COVID-19 would be still more fatal than common cold yes, but in absolute terms it wouldn't be such a problem as it has been. So why is everyone saying he is not correct? He's just stating that the mortality is heavily associated with those factors
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100 times more deadly? How did you arrive at the figure?
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