I say this without malice - you have absolutely no clue whatsoever what you are talking about. You are misusing every term you have used there, it is a garbled sentence that literally doesn't make sense
Mmmm, I'd argue it is intellectually bankrupt to argue about terms without even to bother looking them up. That being said, there have been many efforts to include heterogeneity into HI estimates - as I said, for a fixed population 40-50% is definitely reasonable for COVID
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Okay, so that begs an (perhaps *the*) obvious question: Given seroprevalence studies that drive IFR v CFR estimates, and considering, estimated T/B-cell immunity prevalence (coronaviruses 101), where are we (broadly speaking) vs. HIT? Either way, why is no one asking this Q?
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People have been trying extremely hard to answer that question for months mate. The answer (in most places) is that we are very far from herd immunity with <10% infected
End of conversation
New conversation -
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