Nope, I'm saying the blog you're referring to misrepresented the findings of that validation
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OK. And what do you have to say about the findings of the German EQA?
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Replying to @ClareCraigPath @m0102940 and
I'd refer you to the linked thread of tweets that goes over why that study does not say that the specificity is reduced by 2-7%
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Replying to @GidMK @ClareCraigPath and
If nothing else, the study was of *labs* not of *tests* so it doesn't actually make any comment on specificity at all
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Lol! So that's ok then? Don't worry patients it was the labs that got it wrong not the tests!
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Replying to @ClareCraigPath @m0102940 and
Hilarious, but no it simply means that, again, the test specificity is very high and thus the false positive rate is extremely low as demonstrated mathematically above
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Wishful thinking I'm afraid. I've presented you with evidence and you are reverting to stating what you believe to be true. I give up.
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Replying to @ClareCraigPath @m0102940 and
What an odd thing to say. As I've pointed out, the evidence you presented has nothing to do with the matter at hand, and the mathematics is very simple
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If you want to know the specificity of a test you need to work out how many results of testing are false positives. This involved measuring the whole testing process. That is what they and others have done and the specificity is significantly below 100%
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Replying to @ClareCraigPath @m0102940 and
They did not. That is the point, they looked at between-lab agreement. That is not the same thing as specificity validation analyses. Anyway, as I've said numerous times, what you're proposing is mathematically impossible so it's just a bit silly
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I mean, it does show that there was some variation in German pathology labs in May, but what that has to do with the specificity of pillar II tests I'm still lost on
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