I was referencing the German laboratory quality control who have found 2% cross reactivity for one coronavirus and 7% for another. Are you disputing their findings?
They did not. That is the point, they looked at between-lab agreement. That is not the same thing as specificity validation analyses. Anyway, as I've said numerous times, what you're proposing is mathematically impossible so it's just a bit silly
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I mean, it does show that there was some variation in German pathology labs in May, but what that has to do with the specificity of pillar II tests I'm still lost on
Thanks. Twitter will use this to make your timeline better. UndoUndo
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They had no other golf standard to go on and neither do you.
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While it's a complete non-sequitur and has no bearing on the matter at hand, I'm also confused by that statement. Are you saying that PCR for COVID-19 has never been compared to cultures?
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