.@f2harrell, is this propensity-score perfection plausible?https://twitter.com/SteveJoffe/status/1280587235654598661 …
Epidemiologist. Writer (Guardian, Observer etc). "Well known research trouble-maker". PhDing at @UoW Host of @senscipod Email gidmk.healthnerd@gmail.com he/him
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Steve Joffe Retweeted Steve Joffe
.@f2harrell, is this propensity-score perfection plausible?https://twitter.com/SteveJoffe/status/1280587235654598661 …
Steve Joffe added,
At its face the propensity-induced balance is not plausible. But I would never used a patient-excluding matching method here.
Just to be clear - it is plausible (whether it was advisable is a different matter). As mentioned in other thread - since they say they matched “exactly” on the PS, it is plausible (even likely) that the pairs matched had exactly the same covariate values.
(One may well disapprove of PS matching in general, and also wonder why they chose to match “exactly” on the PS, but I do think it’s important to be accurate in our critique)
I would add that there may be some question of whether it is plausible that, in a sample of 2,500, there were 380 patients who were so perfectly matched on every variable but HCQ prescription, but that's not about the propensity model itself
That being said, the categories are fairly broad (I.e. "cardiovascular comorbidity") so it's not wildly unlikely that this was the case, just a bit weird. If it was my study and this had happened, I'd suspect a classification error of some sort
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