7/n Studies only described in the media were excluded, but this appears to have included government reports as well Again, there's no justification for this and it is REALLY WEIRD to exclude government reports (they're doing most of the testing!)
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But can one infer population seroprevalence from blood donor seroprevalence? If not, why not? If so, how is blood donor selection pertinent? This new paper is obvious garbage, filled with blatant bias - IFR is still 1% - but this one point seems OK to me.
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For the Denmark study they decided to only include representative ages similar to the donor population. So the authors of the Denmark study calculated IFR only for people under 70. https://www.medrxiv.org/content/10.1101/2020.04.24.20075291v1.full.pdf …
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