This is nonsensical. Even taking their entire approach at face value, the correlation between these two variables was only r^2 = 0.22 It is, again, simply wrong to just multiply the values out like this, because quite clearly there is more going on
Perhaps I'd agree if the rest of the paper wasn't as obviously flawed
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Also, if it's a rough and ready calculation it should a) be openly and clearly stated as such in the paper, b) not used for extrapolations without a very wide confidence bound and c) not be used by the lead author to generate a media circus about most of the UK being infected
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