Hey #epitwitter, can anyone explain something to me?
I honestly don't understand why you would normalize to the population from a sample of COVID-19 serological tests. The reason we extrapolate in this way is to gain an idea of the population prevalence...
So far no good answer that I can see. Infectious disease epis, any thoughts? @trentyarwood @peripatetical @aetiology
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A serosurvey ideally gives you cumulative incidence in a particularly population. You'd want to sample in a population where you might find a decent proportion seropositive, but clearly you can't then generalise that to the general population.
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That's what I thought! Thanks Allen, I've been trying to wrap my head around the methodology in the Santa Clara study for days and it just didn't make sense to me

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