Hey #epitwitter, can anyone explain something to me?
I honestly don't understand why you would normalize to the population from a sample of COVID-19 serological tests. The reason we extrapolate in this way is to gain an idea of the population prevalence...
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Yes, but within those subpopulations we assume there is a relatively even spread - that's the point of the adjustment. In this case we know there isn't one, so I can't see how the adjustment makes sense
End of conversation
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