Here is a challenge #EpiTwitter
Rewrite the conclusion of the abstract of this article while avoiding the absence of evidence fallacy https://twitter.com/TheLancet/status/1158310927877443584 …pic.twitter.com/X785BfShWo
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I like the first sentence. My question is: why say "unlikely to be of benefit" in the second? Is that really true for this setting or is it that we just don't know?
I guess in a technical sense, but I think most clinicians reading studies like this want some sort of take-home, and in many ways "we just don't know" in terms of benefit for an intervention that has definite risks is pretty similar to "unlikely to be of benefit"
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