When I asked who was at most fault - the person who offers the bribe or the person who accepts - a good chunk answered "the person who offers." can you explain to me your reasoning for this? In my opinion it's very obviously the person who accepts.
Replying to @Aella_Girl
Neither is at fault because there's no such thing as free will. But we have to pretend the offerer is at fault because doing so deterministically reduces the number of offered bribes (and therefore accepted bribes) more than simply holding the accepter accountable would.
6:00 AM - 14 Jan 2018
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