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So just asking. If the Labour Party win the next election with 42% of the votes u would consider that illegitimate & that they don't have a mandate becoz 58% of the electorate don't agree with them? I would say if Leave parties get 40% or more 4 no deal that's pretty significant
Assuming they controlled the house. FPTP has it's flaws. As an indicator of support for a no deal Brexit 40% isn't enough when 60% didn't support one. If a mandate is being sought the people need to choose. It seems it's now no deal vs remain?
You didn't answer the question. There would never be a mandate for any government ever with what you are suggesting. On your second point the only options if there is another vote should be No Deal vs May's deal. Remain lost it should have ceased to be an option in 2016
If it had been WTO as the goal not the default without all the lies and unicorns vs Remain in 2016 it would have lost. This has not been tested and needs to be.
So really the Brexit Party in theory could win a general election with 40% of the vote and then push for a no deal Brexit with help of DUP/Conservatives but not with more votes in a referendum or other election. Crazy huh,
73 MEPs will be elected by Monday. A large portion of those will be TBP. If those 73 MEPs were to be asked to vote yes or no on a no deal Brexit would it win? Comparing a GE to an EU election fought on a single issue is apples and oranges.
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