It seems to me that public interest in the causes of homosexuality has actually decreased since the early 90's. I wonder if that's because biological origins are now taken for granted or because social acceptance has lessened the relevance of the question.
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A genetic origin of homosexuality would make sense, as long as the blood relatives of the affected gain reproductive success through a pleiotropic genetic mechanism. Still, this would demand perfect concordance in identical twins, which doesn't seem to exist. This is a big puzzle
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Concordance for male and female SSA is often below 50%, but female SSA has an even lower Concordance rate and heritability than, suggesting it's a distinct phenomenon from male SSA. I argue at a minimum, 1 is an acquired trait.
End of conversation
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how would you establish such a claim?
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how does that follow?
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