Similar to a whole range of countries in the West, the Japanese are losing their appetite for sex. https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s41978-019-00034-2 …pic.twitter.com/Kdykz4fJzO
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Science writer and book author in psychology, neuroscience and evolution
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Similar to a whole range of countries in the West, the Japanese are losing their appetite for sex. https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s41978-019-00034-2 …pic.twitter.com/Kdykz4fJzO
Psychology today has a provocative take on why people are having less and less sex. Detoxic masculinity, so to say. https://www.psychologytoday.com/intl/blog/darwins-subterranean-world/201910/the-end-sex …pic.twitter.com/dZ7ajf7aZP
This seems like an oddly fascistic/irredentist explanation. For balance, I think one should consider the antithetical paradigm derived from studies comparing the sex lives of East vs West German women. Is a synthesis of those 2 explanations possible?https://www.theguardian.com/books/2018/nov/09/why-women-have-better-sex-socialism-kristen-ghodsee-review …
The decline in sexual frequency was first observed in Scandinavia, thus the most gender egalitarian countries with a strong welfare state.
does this first observed amount to where the flynn effect was first observed, or do we see it start earlier from a long list of countries with that sort of data? (leaving aside that many gender equality indexes such as the UN one have patently absurd results for the moment)
You mean the reverse Flynn effect? The trends are indeed roughly parallel, but I don't see a common denominator.
no, I mean both (all three, if you count anti flynn) could have been going on in other countries before there were people making studies about the issue, and so "country it was first documented in" can be "first country to have the trend" or not
Hard to answer from the data. I have the subjective impression that the Fins not only were the first to document this, but also show the strongest trend.
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