What are you talking about? Like, literally. In which way did "wokeness" cause this, and how did you find it rational to jump from an observation about a particular situation to a general position that seems both racist and misogynist?
Seeing as how the IQ results are causal to the "underdeveloped" part you're proposing an entirely circular rebuttal. "I will only accept IQ results from developed first world countries" Look at the African diaspora - similar results in developed nations.
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If the white man didn't colonize large parts of Africa, it might still have been in the same shape (underdeveloped) as it is today. But we don't know that for sure and it would be impossible to prove either way.
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If the white man never colonized Singapore or Hong Kong or Shanghai it might still be in the same shape today but we don't know that for sure and it's impossible to prove either way.
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But saying the continent is underdeveloped because of low IQ (if I understood you correctly), sounds like a bit of a simplified explanation.
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You're right - IQ is part of it but it's not the only behavioral difference between groups - those differences also contribute to the different "level of development" - different levels of violent impulsiveness, time orientation and mating behaviors all contribute as well.
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