To my knowledge, FGM is an explicitly religious practice, while the same can’t be said for male circumcision
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FGM also serves no real purpose.. not one of benefit anyway
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What was falsely equivocated? I was making an anatomical & terminological distinction. FGM:hoodectomy :: MGM:circumcision ————— FGM:clitorectomy :: MGM:penectomy*
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I said: ‘FGM is not the “female equivalent” to [male] circumcision.’ Even if I was using your implication: ‘FGM [Infibulation] is not the female equivalent to [male] circumcision.’ It fits & is something my original statement (or I) didn’t implicitly deny.
End of conversation
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