I always find it baffling when people assume the Romans had no concept of sexual consent. Here are some quick examples from Ovid's Met., with Latin screenshots (and quick prose translations):
Näytä tämä ketju
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Tämä twiitti ei ole saatavilla.
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"Concessa" to me suggests non-adultery rather than non-rape. Rape is actually pretty explicit at 1.673: "It's fine to use force/rape. Girls like force/rape."pic.twitter.com/SGiowLO0Uz
How do you read the force of 'ista' in that sentence? I find I can't quite figure it. As an expression of contempt it would seem to cut against the meaning of the sentence, but if not then why not illa?
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You could perhaps read it derogatorily toward the puellae: "that's the sort of violence girls like" or "girls like force of that sort."
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But the Ovid of the Ars Amatoria is, to put it bluntly, an asshole, less interested in the interior lives of women than the Ovid who narrates the Met!
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