I have been asked for my thoughts on the 'battle' part of @BretDevereaux' wildly successful blog series on the myth of Sparta. With his permission, I shall now proceed to apply pedantry to his pedantry. 1/helphttps://acoup.blog/2019/09/20/collections-this-isnt-sparta-part-vi-spartan-battle/ …
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Brazil was majority enslaved (52.8% is the figure I've seen) in the 1780s (as a colony of Portugal), but the figure at independence in 1822 I've seen is 1.5m out of 3.5m enslaved (42.8%).
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But an entire polity - the whole political entity, metropole and colonies together - being not only majority enslaved but massively so...I honestly know of no later parallel. Perhaps a historian of the early modern Atlantic would know of one.
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