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In that case the loss was maybe because they didn't know enough about what they were doing. It requires specific trace elements, present in some iron ores. Theory is that the mine the smiths were using ran empty and they didn't have the knowhow to ID a replacement.
This is Buchwald's argument about Noric steel. The issue I have here is that I don't see any real indication that Roman period steel swords were dramatically metallurgically superior to, say, early or high medieval steel swords.
And it is certainly not the case that they were only making steel in Noricum. The Romans used quite a lot of steel; we even have some clearly intentionally carburized (read: steel) nails from Roman sites. So it's still not quite 'lost.'
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