You know how Southerners say “Coke,” when they mean any fizzy drink? Or Xerox when they mean copy machine? Or Kleenex? Or Zoom? Or Thermos? Or Chapstick?https://twitter.com/notabattlechick/status/1300127747176628224 …
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When is meaningless since it's abundantly clear that the medieval authors didn't use the same way the Romans did anymore so than the medieval author used 'ballistae' to refer to torsion weapons which we know they didn't have.
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I mean, the root question here is how the word is going to be interpreted in a modern context, right? If anything, its classical meaning is likely to dominate overs medieval usage, if just because most Latin dictionaries are classically focused. Classical use seems relevant.
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Uh oh, you mentioned an ancient source. This anonymous fellow will be very touchy about that one.
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And the medieval authors were using 'onager' and other classical terms to describe things they didn't have. Practically, no one thinks that complex Roman torsion-based weapons were in use during the periods where the medieval references are in abundance.
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"Angry certainty" ....yet you're certain that it was used in the way you claim when it's abundantly clear it's not. Which is more probable: unified consistent usage amongst authors who pretended to know more Latin than they did or fragmentation?
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In as much as I am staring at the entry in the Lewis & Short which reads "a soldier in sea-service, a marine" yes, I am pretty confident. The thing about a philological question like this is it takes only one example to demonstrate a usage.
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