I hate to burst your bubble Todd but John was writing to Jews. There's a reason the Bible is segregated the way it is. The four Gospels, Acts, Paul's 13 Epistles and then Hebrews to Revelation which are written to Jews. Only Paul wrote to gentiles.
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It was literally just explained to you, you are talking in circles, asking the same question over and over bc you have no logical reply. Take a break from twitter, you are losing it.
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Listen, Peter did not teach what Paul taught. He was so steeped in Judaism like the other 11 and even he found Paul's writings difficult but he knew enough to refer his Jewish audience to Paul for Doctrine.
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Because remember people. Saul was -not- "Steeped in Judaism"
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The same Saul who raided Catholic congregations and killed Catholics because he thought, as a good Jew, he was doing God’s Will? The same Saul who studied under Gamaliel? That one?
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To be fair, he never claimed he was "steeped in Judaism..like Peter and the 11. Saul actually said, "I conformed to the strictest sect of our religion, living as a Pharisee." But maybe in BW's alternate history Pharisee's weren't these guys: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pharisees
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Peter and The Rest weren’t Jewish enough for Saul is what you’re saying.
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Fishermen, tax collectors. "unclean hands" by Paul's standards. But its easy to see how this is confusing when BW theology has 2 ways to be saved. The "Kingdom Message" for the Jews and the "Gospel of Grace" for the Gentiles.
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Glad I’m Catholic and go by what The Bible says.
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Where is the word "only" in Galatians 2? Or did you add a word to Scripture?
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