Does Rawls (or anyone else) explicitly defend the use of humankind as the relevant range on which to run the Veil of Ignorance function?
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Rawls' unit of analysis re: original position/veil of ignorance ="society", typically a nation-state,extending prior social contract theory.
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Rawls explicitly rejects extension of approach to internat'l distributive justice ie beyond a given political unit. https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/international-justice/ …
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Rawls would have had no problem excluding those not within existing social contract frameworks from his veil of ignorance function.
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Excellent, i did not remember him drawing that distinction.
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It's interesting how cosmopolitan universalists apply Rawlsian distributive fairness args WITHOUT a particular social contract underpinning.
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Which gets back to your original observation/question; there must be a humanist theology baked in, otherwise what is principle of exclusion?
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The universalist Rawls honestly sounds more defensible, given the obvious issues with social contract.
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(but i should really go back & read his actual argument before continuing to talk out my ass.)
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