This is still one of the most embarrassing failures of atheism, not understanding basic logichttps://twitter.com/we_are_atheism/status/1006191050233393152 …
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What does B mean when everything is indicative of it?
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Logic is about the form of reasoning, not its content, so you can substitute any proposition for A and B and it would be logically valid, if it is true is another question.
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And I’ve only questioned the content, when that content is regarding indication. That a syllogism is valid doesn’t necessitate that its contents can’t render the conclusion to be alogical.
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Logic is only about the form of reasoning, so the content (a conclusion) is neither logical nor alogical
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Firstly, logical/alogical is a true dichotomy, so a conclusion can’t be neither. Secondly, a connclusion that is epistemically indistinct from its opposite is alogical.
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What do you mean by "epistemically"?
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Relative to what we can know.
End of conversation
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