Is this a paradox or am I stupid? 1. The odds of a subsequence of events varying from expected frequencies of a larger sequence increases as the bigger sequence approaches infinity. 2. Induction assumes a persistent sequence 3. As lindy-ness increases, it becomes self-refuting
No, but the jump from finite to infinite makes the unlikely event jump from epsilon to infinitely likely. Or maybe this is some weird Bayesian vs Frequentist thing? I don't really understand probability, this is just my intuition.
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So the difference between a model of many (finite) interacting worlds and infinitely many worlds, like modal realism, is the difference between saying with probably ~0 world with improbable sequence of events exists, and with probability 1 it exists.
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It makes it existing at all infinitely but it will still be infinitesimally uncommon
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