Maybe schizophrenia predisposition shows up in children in a way that's detectable to parents/caregivers and triggers abuse. This would perfectly fit the facts of my own case
Schizophrenia is correlated with childhood abuse. Assuming a causal relationship (maybe unwarranted), it seems implausible that physical abuse could directly cause it. Maybe indirectly by its psychological effects. In which case there's only the issue of unique antecedent or not.
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