Ok, I don't know the situation in the USA but in France it's a known fact that, mainly in higher jobs, women get less salary increase for example. At equivalent qualification and job, they are less payed than men. In France at least, it's not only a matter of child-rearing.
Additionally we must find multivariate reasons for the difference that are significant and then we must examine the second and third order effects of intervening in the natural self-selection that produces asymmetries.
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Perhaps you should consider the expendability of men. How might men being expendable result in them taking up the extreme ends of sociological distributions in income, intelligence, education, etc.
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