I've seen several ppl argue that increasing "libertine" norms in society are causally related to sexual harassment at work.
But how is that possible if, in the last 60 yrs, 1) society has gotten MORE libertine, and 2) sexual harassment at work has gone DOWN? Or is 1 or 2 wrong?
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I'm not sure that will ever really work. Seems like you either can have libertine norms everywhere but just make workplaces structurally hostile to non-directly-work-related-activities, or you can have less libertine norms everywhere.
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