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I've seen several ppl argue that increasing "libertine" norms in society are causally related to sexual harassment at work. But how is that possible if, in the last 60 yrs, 1) society has gotten MORE libertine, and 2) sexual harassment at work has gone DOWN? Or is 1 or 2 wrong?
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I'm not sure that will ever really work. Seems like you either can have libertine norms everywhere but just make workplaces structurally hostile to non-directly-work-related-activities, or you can have less libertine norms everywhere.
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I've been really curious about the 'sexually open' groups I've been in, where there's not the sense of 'male hunger' and 'female self-protectedness' that underpins the vast majority of traditional settings. Why do these groups accomplish it but others don't?
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I sort of don't like the potential answer that all the men admitted to these settings are already sexually satiated (as in, they are all getting laid regularly) and are generally attractive or high status.
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I've noticed this too, and my intuitive answer was that both (1) sexual openness, and (2) rejection of typical "men are the pursuers, women the prey" dynamics, stem from some root cause I can't quite define
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It doesn't feel like men are 'winning' anymore when they get laid. Like, a man getting laid in that setting is not a very difficult thing to do. Maybe this comes from poly culture and the reduction of possessiveness. Maybe this will only work for poly people.
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I am not sure it only works for poly people. But, I guess it depends on how you define "works" or "winning." Non-poly people may have a relationship that is not so possessive. ...
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