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I've seen several ppl argue that increasing "libertine" norms in society are causally related to sexual harassment at work. But how is that possible if, in the last 60 yrs, 1) society has gotten MORE libertine, and 2) sexual harassment at work has gone DOWN? Or is 1 or 2 wrong?
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I'm not sure that will ever really work. Seems like you either can have libertine norms everywhere but just make workplaces structurally hostile to non-directly-work-related-activities, or you can have less libertine norms everywhere.
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I've been really curious about the 'sexually open' groups I've been in, where there's not the sense of 'male hunger' and 'female self-protectedness' that underpins the vast majority of traditional settings. Why do these groups accomplish it but others don't?
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I've noticed this too, and my intuitive answer was that both (1) sexual openness, and (2) rejection of typical "men are the pursuers, women the prey" dynamics, stem from some root cause I can't quite define
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It's something like, their culture just has a different, more matter-of-fact conception of sex -- and that makes them treat it more casually, but it also makes sex feel less like a trophy and a validation of their masculinity (hence less of a pursuer-prey dynamic)
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