Do you believe that an action can be immoral even if all parties affected by the action feel positively about it?
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Love this question. My kneejerk thought is yes but I am having trouble coming up with an example. Hmm.
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If I shot someone who wanted to be shot because he thought it would be funny, that would be immoral even if I laughed after.
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I think you have to specify the time horizons at which the parties would approve the action
In the general case, I think general opinion would be the horizon has to be infinite
Perhaps even including “hypothetical sober versions” or etc of the parties
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Lying and deceit are the immoral/all-happy acts in my mind. "Victimless crimes," in which participants have full knowledge, are 👍
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Maybe the trick is the "feeling positively". i.e. gambling feels good but ruin lives. Cognitive biases are a bitch.
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Everybody would say no if they weren’t suspicious of the definitions: that “all parties affected” would be too limited, that “feel positively” would just mean in the moment, etc.
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